I have a great deal of respect for you and Ethan's vast knowledge regarding audio, and still do. But I've never met anyone who was right all the time, and on this one subject, you guys are missing the point
And likewise, Rob, I hope you do know the respect I have for you. I agree with what you have to say far more often than not, and you are one of the members here for which I have the most respect.
Also, I hope you understand that I find this to be an interesting discussion , not an argument. I have the feeling that it is semantics, and not real concept that is seperating us here; that we both understand pretty much the same thing that the engineers at the Big Companies do, and are in far more agreement than disagreement. Let's see if that's the case...
Yes, it is valid, it's just not usually used in that context (in my experience and in most of the published literature I've encountered) because we visualize audio using a straight x axis for time.
I'm not even talking about a time shift. As both of us have said, phase relationships can be time independant. Phase is the measure of the difference in wave cycle rotation. Often this will be in a given point in time, in which one wave form is offset in the X/time axis. It is when there is a time function involved that you have what can truely be called a "phase shift". It's the shifting in the time axis that's causing a concurrent shift in phase.
But when we are talking in a time-independant domain - as it appears both of us are here - there is no phase "shift" per se, because there is no shift in a timeline. There is only a change in the phase angle, as measured in degrees.
Now, where we are reaching the point of confusion and disagreement, I think, is twofold: the first has to do with the definition of "inversion" itself. The second has to do with the difference between "phase inversion" and "polarity inversion". A lot of semantics and nomencalture there.
As to the first, phase angle is a linear measurement, from 0 to 360 degrees. There are no "inversions". While 180° may appear in some special cases to be a mirror image of 0°, the same can be said of 30° and 210°, 90° and 270°, and so on. There is nothing special about 0 and 180 in that regard. Even more to the point, there mathematically and physically is no actual "inversion" going on. It's just a change of phase angle that happens to be a 180° change. And it just so happens that if one assumes the source waveform as being 0° relative phase angle,
and that if the wave is DC symmetric, that a change of 180° happens to macth the results we get if we inverted polarity.
But that's just a change of phase of 180°. It's no more special than a change in the phase angle of 37° or 222°. The fact that 180 happens to be the halfway point on a linear scale of 0 to 360 does not make 180 the inverse of 0 or 360, any more than 5 is the inverse of 0 or 10 on a linear scale of 0-10. It simply looks like what our brains like to think of as "special" because of the DC symmetry (synmmetry around the X axis). In other words, a symmetry around 0DC makes a 180° phase change identical to a polarity inversion, which while the result is the same in that one special case,
is an entirely different mechanism from phase rotation.
BTW, I'm not sure which literature you're referring to, but I grew up on plenty of physics and electronics texts, almost all of which describes phase by using a diagram that related points in a sine wave to the degree of rotation on a circle. They usually keep it simple and more easily understandable by showing the "start" of the wave, or 0°, at the center line of the chart; i.e. it has symmetry around the X axis.
The problem is that in real life audio, true symmetry around 0DC is as much the exception as it is the norm. Asymmetry in the sound waves from various natural physical sources, combined with introduction of random electrical noise that does not know from positive or negative, and even possible DC offset, large or minute, means there is in real life a whole lot of breaking of symmetry around the 0DC centerline. It doesn't matter at that point whether the wave is simple or complex. It will, of course by definition be complex, but that's beside the point at this point in the discussion. What's important is that a major component of that complexity is loss of symmetry around the X axis.
Once that symmetry is lost, a polatity inversion and a "phase inversion" show their true character as being two different things, because the results of each one of those manupilations will be different.
The polarity inverted waveform will flip everything around the 0DC axis. The "phase inverted" waveform, however, will simply be the mirror of itself; it will be "X axis independant", so to speak.The simple fact is that for most real-world waveforms, that if those switches are performing polarity inversions, they are NOT necessarily performing actual phase inversions as labeled on the switch.
I know and understand that everybody and their uncle calls those switches "phase inverters". They also call what they blow their noses into "Kleenex", regardless of whether they are usng Scott tissue or a Bounty paper towel. And I doubt that Rupert got into an argument with anybody; I'll bet you he calls it "phase inversion" the same way he called his photocopies made on his Canon photocopier copier "Xeroxes".
While "phase inversion" is not a brand name, it's misuse is just like the misuse of the words "Kleenex" Or "Xerox" (and you thought I could never type a sentence with three X's in it!

.) It is similar in that it is a misuse adopted by virtually everyone, even those in the industries related to the term, and it is similar in that it's use is only actually true or correct in special circumstances (It is really only correct to say "Kleenex" when one is actually using a Kleenex brand tissue.)
What's the big deal, so we say "Xerox" when we do it on an IBM copier. Same difference, right? Yep, not a big deal. And I never go around correcting anybody about that. But when discussing actual phase, the difference between phase inversion and polarity inversion are real, relevant, and rather important. Rupert (Neve, not Murdoch

) no doubt undertands the difference and takes the common misnomer in stride because he does understand. But for those who may not understand, like those budding engineers who hang out in end-user forums such as this one, it cam be important t to make the real life distinction.
EDIT: View the attached image for a schematic example of the difference between a 180° "phase inversion" and a true polarity inversion. This is a stylized example illustrating the effect that a simple DC offset has, because it's easy to draw and to see

. But any time there is an asymmetrical component in the waveform, a polarity inversion and a "phase inversion" can have similar types of differences. Polarity inversion means a reflection around the 0DC center line, including guaranteed sign change. "Phase inversion" by itself, OTOH, performs a phase angle change in the waveform, independant of any given centerline.
G.