Question about phase reversal...

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It's all good. I didn't know what size can of worms I was opening up by saying "phase reversal" LMFAO

PHASE REVERSAL
PHASE REVERSAL
PHASE REVERSAL!!!!!!
 
Does my setup look like it could be getting any phase delay or anything? The 609 actually works very well on the floor tom. I'm quite pleased, as it wasn't initially what I got it for... Thanks for the input guys....although I think the phase/polarity argument is getting a little too deep for my understanding LOL.
All you need to realize at this point to move forward is that the polarity flip, while not compensating in time -for distance differences of mixed mics, it can bring out a more (or less) favorable tone option that the mixed distances of the mics (snare+o/h, kick, etc) cause and is inevitable. The tone effects of mixed distances are always there, just a mater of finding combos that compliment.
So I take it Q's flip doesn't work in monitor mode?
Wayne
 
I don't really hear a difference. I'll have to try more later today. I'm having HUGE issues with my interface (getting way bad latency and clicking and popping). I have to fix that problem first....*sigh*
 
I don´t understand how you can shift DC with inversion. If there is any, it is also inverted, and not shifted. Anyway, DC offset is mostly that low it doesn´t matter.
Actually SSG is raising a good point that I hadn't thought of. Once I go home, I am going to open up Cubase, record something out of Reaktor with a DC shift on purpose (Reaktor makes this easy), then do "Phase Reverse" (Cubase audio edit function) and see how it is implemented.

I'll do one more test. For example a filtered sawtooth. In general filtered waves look as if they have a DC offset as they don't "look" centered on the 0 crossing line, however, this is not really considered a true DC offset. So, I'll record one such wave as well, run DC removal (to make sure it has no DC offset) and then do "Phase Reverse" on that. I am curious to find out as to what Cubase will do in either scenario.
 
Glen,
I haven't responded to your last couple of posts because I'm getting my ducks in a row. To some here this may seem like we're (annoyingly) arguing over semantics, but this really is a topic that deserves some study and discussion. I'm glad that we're on opposite sides of the debate, as such, since it forces both (or all) of us to really think about this and not just fall back on our accepted notions of what these terms really mean and how we assume they're being applied both in hardware and software.
I agree completly, RD. I, for one, am actually interested in seeing how this comes out.

I'm not one of those who cares which one of us is actually "right", as long as we figure out what "right" actually is. If I wind up being wrong about part or all of it, I'd rather find out now, admit it, be corrected, and move on with the truth than go on from here continuing to make an idiot out of myself by stubbornly spouting the wrong thing.

Who knows, maybe we can put this matter to rest one way or the other for once and for all.

...at least until next week when someone asks again in another thread and all those who are not reading or understanding this thread have to start the argument all over again :D.

G.
 
But that inverts it around 0DC; i.e. the 0DC centerline is the "mirror" causing the inversion. Yes there is inversion, but if the waveform is asymmetric, there is also DC shift.

Straight phase change, OTOH, whether it's a 180° shift or rotation or an instantaneous inversion, is relative voltage independant; the waveform mirrors itself instead of using a voltage reference as the mirror.

In waveforms that are not symmetric around 0DC, this makes a difference as it does produce different results.

EDIT: I'm about to run out the door for the day, so I'm out of time for now. But in the meantime I ask all the polarity/phase equalitists to consider the asymmetric wave form and it's RMS vs. crest factor value as well as it's energy distribution by frequency (i.e. it's spectral fingerprint), and how those can indeed be potentially affected differently by a polarity inversion versus a phase inversion only. It's not just DC offset that's at stake here; it's potential differences in the actual sonic character of the signal.

G.


I don't think I can completely agree with you that there is a dc shift if I apply negative sign to the complete waveform. If dc offset is there, it will simply appear on the other side of the axis - nothing shifts, just gets flipped to the other side. If I don't apply negative sign to the dc shift, my wave will simply be inverted about the dc offset axis.

For example:

y = A (wt+phi) + d where
A is your amplitude
w is your angular frequency
phi is phase (will assume 0)
and d is your dc offset.

If I invert the complete waveform, I get: y(inverted) = - [A(wt) + d]
If I invert my wave, y(inverted) = -A(wt) + d

However, doesn't hardware filter the DC offset anyways? So my waveform becomes y(inverted) = -A(wt)

...


Now, in the grand scheme of things, if we think about our speakers that produce the sound. I generally understand that the waveform dictates how the speaker moves (to produce sound). A positive waveform pushes speaker forward (for example), negative waveform pulls the speaker inward. The pull/push is proportional to the waveform. What I don't necessarily fully understand is why would a push/pull versus a pull/push sound different? Or am I simplifying it down too much at this point?
 
I don't think I can completely agree with you that there is a dc shift if I apply negative sign to the complete waveform.
Oops, I mistyped and got it reversed. I meant to say that a phase change only would cause the offset, not the polarity flip.

Which goes to what I've been saying all along; when we all talk about phase inversion, we are really taling about polarity inversion, in which, yes, all the values are conserved because everything continues revolving around 0DC as the standard. That's cool. no problem.

The problem is that when explining this stuff to someone who is just wrapping their brains around it for the firts time, it's important to understand that what everybody calls "flipping the phase" is really more on a technical level than *just* flipping the phase. Whether it due to, as RD suggests (basically admitting the difference right there), removing offset as a factor by adjusting the centerline of the waveform's envelope to equal 0DC, or whether it's because of a DC rectification, or whether it's because in reality it's just a simple polarity inversion (which seems the simplest answer to me), there is actually more going on than an instantaneous ohase shift. Whether it's a polarity flip, phase plus DC reset, or any other formula, its NOT just simple phase change. That's all I'm saying.

Think about it from an entirely different direction. Imagine instead of a "phase invert" button on you mixer, you had a hypothetical "phase change" button instead that was accompanied by a knob that rotated from 1° to 359° (with a handy detent straight up at 180° ;) ). We'll pretend that this was a circuit that allowed you to dial in an instantaneous phase change of any degree you wish rather than just a single choice of 180° only.

Such a circuit would not be able to use a polarity flip to do it's thang. Why? because phase and polarity are two different things. Such a circuit would also have to execute a phase change "in place" - instantaneously "shift" the phase so that the waveform rotates around itself and not around 0DC. This hypothetical circuit would have to incorporate an extra stage or two besides just the phase shift in order to keep the energy balance around the 0DC the same; i.e. to make sure that there are no unwanted side effects outside of the phase change itself. Why? Because once we talke polarity out of the mechanism and look at just phase alone, the 0DC balance issue is no longer automatically nulled.

The whole subject just screams that phase shift and polarity shift are not the same thing. I just simply don't understand what is so heretical or blastphemous about saying that, because it is - by every way I can slice or dice it, anyway - the truth.

And if it is true that phase change and polarity change are indeed different processes that in and of themselves (i.e. by definition) yield different results, which has been shown in this thread several different ways to Sunday, and if the inverter switches on your microphones and our mixers are actually performing polarity inversions (or possibly phase changes with extra offset correction to make it appear exactly like a polarity inversion), then it is perfectly true from a technical standpoint that the label "phase inversion" is a misnomer.

On a day-to-day level we don't really care about the historically esconsed misnomer because we all know intuitively that it really means polarity inversion. But when trying to describe to someone from another planet what's going on, the phrase "phase inversion" is misleading because executing a true, pure, instantaneous phase inversion only is different than what the switch actually does.

I really REALLY don't understand what is so difficult about getting that point across. You guys are smart guys. I can't explain it any other way than to say that I am battling against such deeply ingrained prejudices that I sound heretical: "How DARE you say that Rupert Neve is human enough to accept a commonly used name for something that is technically not quite accurate?Rupert would never do anything inaccurate because he is an engineering MACHINE!"

Here's how: Rupert uses the nomenclature of the business, his mixers are tools for seasoned engineers, not training modules for newbs. If everybody finds it easy to call it the old-fashoned and intrenched "phase inversion" instead of calling it "modified phase inversion via the flipping of polarity", who is ol' Rupert to argue? Everybody knows what it *really* means anyway.

Until a couple of generations later, that is.

G.
 
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Robert_D (or anyone else with an engineering degree), please feel free to comment where I might be misleading SouthSIDE or just off my rockers all together. Thanks in advance. :)


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Oops, I mistyped and got it reversed. I meant to say that a phase change only would cause the offset, not the polarity flip.

I still don't see how a phase change would cause the dc offset :confused:
In my opinion the offset is either there or not (unless your circuit is causing the offset somehow...)



Which goes to what I've been saying all along; when we all talk about phase inversion, we are really taling about polarity inversion, in which, yes, all the values are conserved because everything continues revolving around 0DC as the standard. That's cool. no problem.

True. 0Dc is just a convenient reference point in my opinion...


The problem is that when explining this stuff to someone who is just wrapping their brains around it for the firts time, it's important to understand that what everybody calls "flipping the phase" is really more on a technical level than *just* flipping the phase. Whether it due to, as RD suggests (basically admitting the difference right there), removing offset as a factor by adjusting the centerline of the waveform's envelope to equal 0DC, or whether it's because of a DC rectification, or whether it's because in reality it's just a simple polarity inversion (which seems the simplest answer to me), there is actually more going on than an instantaneous ohase shift. Whether it's a polarity flip, phase plus DC reset, or any other formula, its NOT just simple phase change. That's all I'm saying.

What do you mean by "more going on than an instantaneous phase shift" and "NOT just simply phase change"? I thought we are agreeing that we are not inverting phase by phase shift...


Think about it from an entirely different direction. Imagine instead of a "phase invert" button on you mixer, you had a hypothetical "phase change" button instead that was accompanied by a knob that rotated from 1° to 359° (with a handy detent straight up at 180° ;) ). We'll pretend that this was a circuit that allowed you to dial in an instantaneous phase change of any degree you wish rather than just a single choice of 180° only.

Humm... so if you have a 10kHz riding 1kHz wave, which wave do you want to invert? The 10kHz or the 1kHz?


Such a circuit would not be able to use a polarity flip to do it's thang. Why? because phase and polarity are two different things. Such a circuit would also have to execute a phase change "in place" - instantaneously "shift" the phase so that the waveform rotates around itself and not around 0DC. This hypothetical circuit would have to incorporate an extra stage or two besides just the phase shift in order to keep the energy balance around the 0DC the same; i.e. to make sure that there are no unwanted side effects outside of the phase change itself. Why? Because once we talke polarity out of the mechanism and look at just phase alone, the 0DC balance issue is no longer automatically nulled.

Somehow I don't see this relevant in terms of the comment I mention above.


The whole subject just screams that phase shift and polarity shift are not the same thing. I just simply don't understand what is so heretical or blastphemous about saying that, because it is - by every way I can slice or dice it, anyway - the truth.

You are correct, phase shift and polarity inversion (i'm not sure I understand what you mean by "polarity shift", unless you mean to add/subtract dc offset) are not the same thing. All polarity inversion accomplishes is an instantaneous "phase shift of 180 degrees" for all frequencies.


And if it is true that phase change and polarity change are indeed different processes that in and of themselves (i.e. by definition) yield different results, which has been shown in this thread several different ways to Sunday, and if the inverter switches on your microphones and our mixers are actually performing polarity inversions (or possibly phase changes with extra offset correction to make it appear exactly like a polarity inversion), then it is perfectly true from a technical standpoint that the label "phase inversion" is a misnomer.

I would agree. However, the phase is still inverted, right? Think of polarity inverter to be a way to do an instantaneous phase shift by 180 degrees for all frequencies.


On a day-to-day level we don't really care about the historically esconsed misnomer because we all know intuitively that it really means polarity inversion. But when trying to describe to someone from another planet what's going on, the phrase "phase inversion" is misleading because executing a true, pure, instantaneous phase inversion only is different than what the switch actually does.

I'm going to assume that by "true, pure, instantaneous phase inversion" you mean an instantaneous phase inversion about the dc offset axis. In that case, why does your circuit not have a dc filter? All it takes is a capacitor...


I really REALLY don't understand what is so difficult about getting that point across. You guys are smart guys. I can't explain it any other way than to say that I am battling against such deeply ingrained prejudices that I sound heretical: "How DARE you say that Rupert Neve is human enough to accept a commonly used name for something that is technically not quite accurate?Rupert would never do anything inaccurate because he is an engineering MACHINE!"

Well, I'd suspect Rupert filtered out the dc offset and inverted polarity thus achieving an instantaneous phase inversion. Again, dc offset is irrelevant at this point.

Also note how I'm saying "phase inversion" and not polarity inversion? However, I'm adding word 'instantaneous' to make sure you know I'm talking about the polarity inversion and 'for all frequencies'. See how that works?

Let me digress a bit. A while back ago electricity flow considered to flow from + to - terminal of the battery. However, we now understand that the electrons actually flow from - to + terminal of the battery. We still use the notation + to -. It is actually referred to as a "conventional current flow" however we still just say "current flow" and draw and arrow from + to - terminal of the battery because at the end it does not matter - kirchoff's laws will work either way. Untill you get into microprocessor design, then it matters and "arrows" are drawn from "- to +"...

I'm sure that there way some similar history behind why polarity inversion is still called that. Besides, isn't that what we are observing when we compare the modified wave with the original? Besides, it doesn't really feel right to talk polarity when looking at the wave... I guess old habits are hard to kill...


Here's how: Rupert uses the nomenclature of the business, his mixers are tools for seasoned engineers, not training modules for newbs. If everybody finds it easy to call it the old-fashoned and intrenched "phase inversion" instead of calling it "modified phase inversion via the flipping of polarity", who is ol' Rupert to argue? Everybody knows what it *really* means anyway.

True. That is what they see as well when they look at the wave. Perhaps it is the physicists that need to be blamed for starting this whole "phse inversion" thing :D:D


Until a couple of generations later, that is.

When you look at the wave and switch polarity, it seems natural to say that your new wave has an inverted phase compared to the old wave.


southSIDE, does this help??
 
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I still don't see how a phase change would cause the dc offset :confused:
In my opinion the offset is either there or not (unless your circuit is causing the offset somehow...)
Once again, we're talking asymmetrical waves here. Imagine a modulated amplitude wave that "starts" at 0DC and peaks at +12dB and -8dB (there's the asymmetry).

Flip the phase *only* (not the ploarity), and the waveform inverts around itself, and not around 0DC. This means the the overall envelope is still +12/-8, it's just that the waveform is upside down. The waveform now "starts" at +4dB, not 0DC, an effective DC shift of 4dB.
0Dc is just a convenient reference point in my opinion...
Absolutely true, and it's the implied default reference built into the phrase "phase inversion". The problem is that for any waveform that is not symmetrical around 0DC, that 0DC reference loses any relevancy to the waveform's phase; i.e. the phase of that waveform no longer rotates around 0DC, it rotates around the centerline of the waveform's envelope instead. This means that flipping polarity does more to the wave than just inverting it phase; there are consequences to the offset between 0DC and the centerline of the waveform.
What do you mean by "more going on than an instantaneous phase shift" and "NOT just simply phase change"? I thought we are agreeing that we are not inverting phase by phase shift...
We are not inverting phase by affecting phase alone, we are inverting phase by flipping polarity. One more time, on anything symmetric around 0DC, there is no difference, they do the same thing. But on real-life asymmetric waves, a phase inversion is just one part of what a polarity inversion induces.

And the second part of your sentence seems to confirm what I'm trying to say: that we are inverting the wave by changing polarity, not by changing phase.
Humm... so if you have a 10kHz riding 1kHz wave, which wave do you want to invert? The 10kHz or the 1kHz?
A red herring question. The entire complex wave gets inverted, not just one component of it. We are not talking about a phase shift via time shift here, we're talking a hypothetical instant phase change.
Somehow I don't see this relevant in terms of the comment I mention above.
Not sure what you're referring to here.

I just feel like we're talking in a circle, and missing the point in the center of that circle. Let me step thorugh it here:

1. We actually invert our waves by flipping the polarity.
2. There is a difference between phase and polarity.
3. This difference can have real consequences.
4. Therefore, when discussing the issue in a learning/educational environment like these forums, it's important to that understanding to know the difference, and that the "phase inversion" label is technically incorrect because it's really a polarity inversion.

After a weekend off, noisewreck and I are going to be working on something, a form of experiment that any of us can perform that - *if* I'm right - should pretty dramatically illustrate point #3. It could also prove otherwise, that's the beauty of experiment :).

G.
 
Once again, we're talking asymmetrical waves here. Imagine a modulated amplitude wave that "starts" at 0DC and peaks at +12dB and -8dB (there's the asymmetry).

Flip the phase *only* (not the ploarity), and the waveform inverts around itself, and not around 0DC. This means the the overall envelope is still +12/-8, it's just that the waveform is upside down. The waveform now "starts" at +4dB, not 0DC, an effective DC shift of 4dB.
The wave is composed of series of sines, cosines and offest. Series of sines and cosines is always symmetrical around 0. So that wave has +2dB offset.
The wave will invert not around itself, but around +2dB, beacuse +2dB is the DC offset of the wave.
The inverted wave will peak +8/-12.

BTW what does "invert around itself" mean?
 
BTW what does "invert around itself" mean?
Exactly what you described! :) My math was off on the offset (I keep doing that as I'm thinking through this offline, I keep accientally doubling the value :P), but the concept is solid - as far as I can tell.

What I mean is a mirroring - or turning upside down - of a waveform without changing it's overall position (it's voltage envelope) on the Y axis. 180° phase rotation minus the element of time = instantaneous phase inversion.

Versus a polarity inversion, in which the mirror is not defined by the waveform voltages, but rather defined by 0DC itself.

[EDIT: long description of experiment edited out due to faulty idea.]

G.
 
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Once again, we're talking asymmetrical waves here. Imagine a modulated amplitude wave that "starts" at 0DC and peaks at +12dB and -8dB (there's the asymmetry).

Flip the phase *only* (not the ploarity), and the waveform inverts around itself, and not around 0DC. This means the the overall envelope is still +12/-8, it's just that the waveform is upside down. The waveform now "starts" at +4dB, not 0DC, an effective DC shift of 4dB.Absolutely true, and it's the implied default reference built into the phrase "phase inversion". The problem is that for any waveform that is not symmetrical around 0DC, that 0DC reference loses any relevancy to the waveform's phase; i.e. the phase of that waveform no longer rotates around 0DC, it rotates around the centerline of the waveform's envelope instead. This means that flipping polarity does more to the wave than just inverting it phase; there are consequences to the offset between 0DC and the centerline of the waveform.We are not inverting phase by affecting phase alone, we are inverting phase by flipping polarity. One more time, on anything symmetric around 0DC, there is no difference, they do the same thing. But on real-life asymmetric waves, a phase inversion is just one part of what a polarity inversion induces.
While we're waiting for my tests, I have this to throw in there. Doesn't what you describe above assume that just because a waveform looks asymmetrical it inherently has DC offset?

Take a look at this screenshot of Saxophone recording for example:
20927__stephenchai__Gypsy_1_Alto_Sax_A_103bpm.png


It looks asymmetrical as the waveform seems to be shifted more towards the positive side. However, there is no DC offset there. It looks perfectly natural. In fact any natural sound with strong formants is going to exhibit such seeming asymmetry. If, then, phase reversal was done properly, wouldn't it still reverse the waveform around the zero crossing, thus turning out to be the same as polarity inversion?

I don't know... but thought I'd through it out there for the sake of discussion.
 
Take a look at this screenshot of Saxophone recording for example:
20927__stephenchai__Gypsy_1_Alto_Sax_A_103bpm.png

I think the assymmetrical waveform of a saxophone recording is easily explained with the air stream hitting the mic diaphram pushing the diaphram away from the 0 position when the player blows his horn. In principle sound is just the changes in air pressure detected by our ear as sound and in most cases there's no movement of air itself involved just the change in pressure but in this saxophone case the moving air stream shows up as assymmetricality in the produced waveform that looks like DC-offset. In fact I'd be really surprised if it didn't manifest itself in some way or another in the waveform and in this case the amount of DC-offset is proportional to the speed of airstream from the saxophone.
 
I think the assymmetrical waveform of a saxophone recording is easily explained with the air stream hitting the mic diaphram pushing the diaphram away from the 0 position when the player blows his horn. In principle sound is just the changes in air pressure detected by our ear as sound and in most cases there's no movement of air itself involved just the change in pressure but in this saxophone case the moving air stream shows up as assymmetricality in the produced waveform that looks like DC-offset. In fact I'd be really surprised if it didn't manifest itself in some way or another in the waveform and in this case the amount of DC-offset is proportional to the speed of airstream from the saxophone.



You're reasoning makes sense. I think it also goes with something I mentioned a while back ago regarding speakers:

Now, in the grand scheme of things, if we think about our speakers that produce the sound. I generally understand that the waveform dictates how the speaker moves (to produce sound). A positive waveform pushes speaker forward (for example), negative waveform pulls the speaker inward. The pull/push is proportional to the waveform. What I don't necessarily fully understand is why would a push/pull versus a pull/push sound different? Or am I simplifying it down too much at this point?


But what SouthSIDE is trying to get at is that there is a difference between phase and polarity and that each of the operations may/should sound different if there is a dc offset.

At this point I think we have few different questions/issues somehow being intermingled into one issue. Before we start explicitly defining each issue, I think we should wait for the experiment results and go from there... If need to...
 
The wave is composed of series of sines, cosines and offest. Series of sines and cosines is always symmetrical around 0. So that wave has +2dB offset.
The wave will invert not around itself, but around +2dB, beacuse +2dB is the DC offset of the wave.
The inverted wave will peak +8/-12.

BTW what does "invert around itself" mean?


kubeek, I'm not sure I follwo your logic...
You say that the wave will not invert around itself, but around +2dB axis (DC offset). Then you say that the inverted wave will peak +8/-12.

Originally our wave was peaking at +12/-8. If we flip the wave about +2dB axis, we should still have +12/-8 peaks since the offset is still +2dB. In order to have wave inverted where peaks are +8/-12, you will need to flip the wave about 0VDC axis so that our dc offset gets flipped to the other side of the axis...

Just thought I'd mention this...
 
Ahh! Just couldn't stay away from this. Had to go back... :D

SouthGLEN, just to make sure that I understand the issue correctly. What you are saying is to forget all the filtering, etc, etc. That given a wave with DC offset (or an asymmetrical wave?), would we hear a difference in sound if we invert the phase (by flipping polarity) about the offset axis?

The way the question is phrased, we are leaving DC offset where it is (untouched) and just flip the wave about the offset axis.

For a symmetrical wave (with DC offset), for some reason I don't think we should hear a difference between the original and the inverted wave. The overall structure/waveform of the wave hasn't changed except that the low points are now high and high points are now low. I don't think sound will sound any different if the speaker cones are pushing/pulling vs pulling/pushing. Sound pressure would essentially be the same.

Generally speaking, when we combine an inverted wave with some other wave, the original (non inverted) wave might have caused constructive interference and made certain things sound worse (or maybe better). The inverted wave will now may cause destructive interference and may make things to sound better (or maybe worse).


I still need to think about the asymmetric waves though. Even though there would be two types of asymmetrical waves - asymmetric wave with DC offset and an asymmetric wave with no DC offset, think the result will be the same between the two types. It also may end up being like the symmetrical wave...
 
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