
Zaphod B
Raccoons-Be-Gone, Inc.
This is a two-sided question about copyrights and cover music.
First: Am I correct in assuming that there can be no additional copyright associated with the performance of previously copyrighted music? For example, Nazareth's interpretation of "Love Hurts" is sonically very different from the original (which I think was first recorded by the Everly Brothers) even though it was structurally very similar. But Nazareth could not have copyrighted their recorded performance, correct?
Second: If I record a cover of previously copyrighted material and release the recording to the public with no financial gain involved (free internet distribution or just giving away CDs, etc.), what is my obligation to the copyright holder, if any?
Thanks, smart people!
First: Am I correct in assuming that there can be no additional copyright associated with the performance of previously copyrighted music? For example, Nazareth's interpretation of "Love Hurts" is sonically very different from the original (which I think was first recorded by the Everly Brothers) even though it was structurally very similar. But Nazareth could not have copyrighted their recorded performance, correct?
Second: If I record a cover of previously copyrighted material and release the recording to the public with no financial gain involved (free internet distribution or just giving away CDs, etc.), what is my obligation to the copyright holder, if any?
Thanks, smart people!
