dementedchord said:
i agree... wholeheartedly...LMAO... there are all kinds II's... but there's the rub... cause there's only thre kindsa neapolitans... french/italian/german and they still are all dom7th and still go to the V.... hehhehhehhehheh
This is incorrect. You're talking about augmented 6th chords -- not a Neapolitan chord.
A Neapolitan is a triad built on the bII step that usually resolves to a V chord after a I chord in second inversion.
The Neapolitan chord is usually in 1st inversion, so the the note in the bass would usually be the 4th scale degree.
In this example, you'd usually have an F chord with A in the bass, then an E minor chord with B in the bass, then a B (or B7) in root position, then an Em maybe.
But ... rules are broken as much as they're adhered to in music, and what he's written is basically a Neapolitan-eqsue sound --- basically a bII chord. It's made into a major 7, which is not that big of a deal since the 7th of the chord is E and is in the key of Em.
And secondary dominants don't have to resolve to where they're supposed to in order for them to be called secondary dominants. The term for that in "non-resolving" secondary dominants. You see these ALL OVER.
Progressions like:
I - II - IV - I
I - III - IV - I
are good examples of non-resolving secondary dominants.
So ... basically, there's no technically exact way to describe what he's written, but it's closest to say it's a Neapolitan chord, which is, at its essence, a bII chord (usually in a minor key).
As demented pointed out, it's definitely not Phrygian because of the Gmaj7. It's Em, and the Fmaj7 is a non-diatonic chord (in this case, best described as a Neapolitan sound).