Define "phase"? Or is it polarity?

Sonixx already covered this one.



Jeez dude, in your other post you said you had a degree. :rolleyes: This bit about 3:1 having anything to do with correcting phase is like a reoccurring scourge of misinformation. It's just flat out wrong.
Here's how to tell.

Put your first mic right up on the source, zero inches. Now do the math. What's the correct 3:1 distance for the second mic?

You said phase is time. Good. And it follows that distance is time.
Time is the frequencies effected.
3:1 inches is not the same time as 3:1 feet. Different distance, different frequencies.

O-tay. :)

zero inches could be anything - are you wanting to put te mic in direct contact with the amp cause your gonna get some real fucked up sounds like that (the mic ratteling on the grate of the amp...)

If mic 1 is 0.5 inches away from source, mic 2 needs to be placed directly behind mic 1 by a distance of 0.5in x 3. Otherwise it will phase.

Are you wanting to put the mic in somebodies mouth? Cause that would invalidate the 3:1 rule; usless you used the vocal chords as the source, and I dont know how you would measure that distance out, considering the resonance in the head I would say its a negative value. You could really use your imagination with the theory and put the other mic in their ass and say that it was at a distance of -3 feet away from the source.
 
If mic 1 is 0.5 inches away from source, mic 2 needs to be placed directly behind mic 1 by a distance of 0.5in x 3. Otherwise it will phase.


Someone? Anyone.

Ok, I can't resist.
Here's a clue. In all cases the reason you set the other mic back... farther away..
Is so you don't frikin hear it.

The exception being when you're applying 3:1 in a stereo pair and looking at a 'single' source with concern to cross feed -as if it were multiple sources.

One behind the other... Never.

I'm going to bed. ;)
 
Last edited:
uhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh................

I'm pretty sure you don't want to refer to two mics as a "stereo pair" since all mics record a single mono channel...

You want to use four mics now? You got a mic that records in stereo? Like a pair of mics where each one records stereo?

...But yeah, I knew what you meant, and how ever you want to verberate it - thats how it works - wtf is cross feed? Is that something that you made up? Should I ask the mic if it wants toast with its cereal? Because that sounds very good.

Yeah you set the mic back so it can't be heard - isn't that fuckin cute, you want to tell that to the emmy award winning producer who throughly explained the three to one ratio? I'm pretty sure the fader is used to balance out the volumes in post...

For fucks sake - why wouldn't you want to hear it. If the room aint sound proof then, yeah, it might suck.

For one thing the mic aint gonna be subject to proximity effect - it provides a more rounded out sound along the frequency spectrum when you can mix between the two...
 
Last edited:
The 3:1 rule is THIS: the rest of you are misinformed lol:
A microphone should be three times as far from THE OTHER MICROPHONES as it is from the source.

Question, I'm micing a snare, one mic on the top batter head and one mic on the bottom snare head, each mic is 3 inches from a head and 9 inches from each other. Is this the 3:1 rule?


For any newbie... that should be the answer. I really don't see the point in telling them phase is not a time effect... In 99% of their experiences it will be, and when it's not... who cares they won't even know there was phase to be found anyway (see: linear phase EQ)

Linear phase means Equal Delay or equal time shift for all frequencies. There is no analog equilalent and Linear Phase is only available with Digital EQs.

All analog and digital equivalent EQs cause phase shift around the cutoff frequency for that particular filter.
 
What he's saying in, "the mics are equidistant from each other by definition" is that two things are the same distance from each other:

if mic a is 5 feet from mic b... mic b is 5 feet from mic a.

The 3:1 rule is THIS: the rest of you are misinformed lol:
A microphone should be three times as far from THE OTHER MICROPHONES as it is from the source.

Example:
You have 3 mics on a piano. if each mic is 10 inches from the piano, they should be AT LEAST 30 inches away from each other.

Example 2:
You are unhappy with the last recording of the piano so you decide to redo it with only two mics. One mic is 5 inches away from the piano, and the other is 20 inches away from it. The microphones should be 60 inches away from each other.

You should use the larger multiple of three to ensure you don't have microphones all in a row ;)

The way it works:
The signal from the piano itself is 1/3 the distance away at the point you're recording of the distance to the point where the other microphone's signal is coming from. I know that sounds convoluted but stay with me...

the signal strength decreases exponentially, so at 3x the distance you have 1/9 the signal strength. So the signal you're trying to capture with a mic is about 10dB (really it's a bit less) louder than the signal the other mic is recording.

This has been established as enough of a difference to render phase effects... non-problematic (I think I just invented a word there... oh well)
There sure is alot of misinformation out in the field on this one.

The 3:1 rule is used for minimizing phase between 2 mics on 2 sources by minimizing bleed from the alternate. If each mic is 1 foot from it's source then they should be no closer than 3 feet from each other.
 
mixsit said:
In all cases the reason you set the other mic back... farther away..
Is so you don't frikin hear it.
Apologies to the board for getting clever about it. That never works. Should have just stuck to plain and direct attenuation.

So again just to recap what so many have so well stated so many times here-
3:1 -Isolation by distance attenuation-
And never this
If mic 1 is 0.5 inches away from source, mic 2 needs to be placed directly behind mic 1 by a distance of 0.5in x 3. Otherwise it will phase.
.

A recent HR BBS success :)
https://homerecording.com/bbs/showthread.php?t=268509&highlight=isolation
 
Last edited:
Wow, I step away from the computer for a couple of days...

Morningstar is absolutely right about the 3:1 rule. It has ZERO to do with double miking the same source, only as a general guideline for reducing bleed from other sources.

However, black circle's erroneous belief. namely:
If mic 1 is 0.5 inches away from source, mic 2 needs to be placed directly behind mic 1 by a distance of 0.5in x 3. Otherwise it will phase.
is really the same kind of error folks were making on the first page of this thread, just in a different flavor.

BlackCircle, the reason that statement of yours is incorrect is because it ignores the fact that every frequency has a different wavelength. This causes two problems with your example:

First, extending the mic out to 0.5 * 3 inches (or simply 1.5") only keeps things in phase for frequencies with a fundamental or whole harmonics with wavelenths of 1" - the only one of which, BTW, fits into the audible spectrum would be a fundamnetal frequency of approx. 13.5kHz. That spacing, however, at, say 10kHz (wavelength 1.35") means that the 1" gap would actually be a phase shift of 1/1.35 or 74%, or about a 266°. At, say, 1kHz, with a wavelength of about 13.56", a 1" gap would mean a phase shift of 1/13.56, or 7.3% or about 26°.

In other words, with that miking everything is actually thrown out of phase by different amounts, except for the one frequency of about 13.5kHz, which just so happens to coincide with that spacing.

A second, more minor point, is that with a spacing of 0.5" and 1.5", the one frequency that remains in phase happens to be a frequency that you are capturing at it's inverted phase (wavelength = 1", distance of mic 0.5" or 180° phase shift.) They may be in phase wit each other, but at that frequency wit would be almost as if you flipped polarity for that frequency alone (minus any DC offset effects).

But this is really the exact same problem I was try to describe on page one; except looking at it from the standpoint of frequency rather than of wavelength. One cannot just slide a complex waveform like one from a miked guitar amp, down the timeline and throw the whole waveform in or out of phase by a set amount, because every component frequency in that waveform will have a different relation to the amount of time offset you introduce. Sure you may be able to shift the timeline by 0.00735 milliseconds and bring the 13.5kHz component into phase, but it won't do the same for 10kHz or 1kHz or any other audible frequency.

And as far as the time vs. no time argument, I think where we're getting hung up on the following:

When one adjusts their snare mic to the OH by sliding it on the timeline (just for one real-live example), all they are doing is lining up the main attack transients; i.e. they are bringing the spacing of the main drum hits "into phase". A close examination of the waveforms, however, will show that this does not being the actual full waveform into phase, but rather that there will still be plenty of phase conflicts in the details of the waveform between the loudest transients. This is because the spacing of the two microphones is such where as they cannot be in phase for all frequencies, and will, just like with BC's guitar amp example, be out of phase by a differing amount for every frequency comprising that snare hit.

Two waveforms that are out of phase, however, do not need to have a time delay, they just have differing values at each moment in time, such values corresponding to those of a change in phase value.

Look one more time at reel's original sin/cos chart. Let's assume that sonixx is right, and that the x axis does indicate time. Even still. there is no time shift here because both waveforms start at x=0. They start at the same time! The second one is not pushed down the timeline, it is in the exact same position along the x axis as the first one. Or put as I have been trying to say all along, there is no time shift there, and there is no time shift required to have a phase shift.

In fact, if you took one of those drum tracks and change the phase (and phase only) on it consistently along all frequencies (e.g. by, say, 90°) it would not move down the timeline, it would stay in place, but change it's shape and would barely resemble the original wave, because the amplitude changes at each frequency would differ.

Go back to the drum mics example; if one ignores the transients and looks in detail at the rest of the waveform, they will, in fact, look like quite different waveforms, even though they are capturing the same source (let's pretend we're in an anechoic chamber that there is no room verb or bleed). The reason is, even though it is the same source creating just one waveform, the two mics are capturing each frequency at a different phase, bending the waveform around itself. Even if one adjusts the timeline for the delay, that alone will never bring the two waves in phase, because the phase difference is different for each frequency.

OTOH, to go back to reel's eample; if you take the original wave copy it as is, and just move it down the timeline, sure it will no longer be phase coherent with how it was in it's original position, but that's NOT because the phase of the waveform itself has been altered. The waveform in fact has not been altered at all; it has simply been moved down the timeline - i.e. it has been delayed. The fact that it's no longer going to line up with the original and that there will indeed be incoherency does not mean that there's been an actual phase change to the waveform, it simply means that they are acting like any other two incoherent waves that are put together and clashing with each other.

G.
 
Last edited:
Two waveforms that are out of phase, however, do not need to have a time delay, they just have differing values at each moment in time, such values corresponding to those of a change in phase value.

then how can the two waveforms be placed in phase by any action other than by moving one of the waves by some amount of time?

also, for this discussion the X-axis is always time and the Y-axis is Magnitude. we are dealing with signals in the time domain.

also, what is a phase value?

Look one more time at reel's original sin/cos chart. Let's assume that sonixx is right, and that the x axis does indicate time. Even still. there is no time shift here because both waveforms start at x=0. They start at the same time! The second one is not pushed down the timeline, it is in the exact same position along the x axis as the first one. Or put as I have been trying to say all along, there is no time shift there, and there is no time shift required to have a phase shift.

no, the Blue Sine Wave is shifted in time. A sine wave cannot start with a discontinuity.

...if you take the original wave copy it as is, and just move it down the timeline, sure it will no longer be phase coherent with how it was in it's original position, but that's NOT because the phase of the waveform itself has been altered.

a sine wave does not have phase. a sine wave has magnitude and frequency. phase is a term that describes the relative time relationship of two waves. moving the Blue wave in time changes the phase relationship by some number of radians.

The waveform in fact has not been altered at all; it has simply been moved down the timeline - i.e. it has been delayed.

bingo... the two waves are no longer in phase


The fact that it's no longer going to line up with the original and that there will indeed be incoherency does not mean that there's been an actual phase change to the waveform

there is no such thing as a phase change of a sine wave. a sine wave can change Magnitude and Frequency. Two Sine Waves have phase relationship determined by difference in Radians.
 
Last edited:
The plotting function of a sin wave - f(t) = A sin 2[pi]ft

To do this we divide up our graph paper horizontally into equal chunks to represent a "time scale", and for each time t we want to plot, we multiply t by 2[pi]f (f=frequency) and look up the sine of the result. That sine value is what gets used for the vertical part of the graph.

When we have two waveforms which have the same shape and frequency but are offset in time, we say they are out of phase by the amount of angle you have to add to the 2[pi]ft term of the first to move them together. In other words the wave defined by sin(2[pi]ft) is out of phase with the wave defined as sin(2[pi]ft+p) by the angle p.
I thought the above simplified this whole argument by showing how to produce the charts being used.
Doesn't a change in the angle (what Glenn is saying) change where the wave appears on the graph (what Sonnix is saying) per the formulas above?

I think you are both saying the same thing kinda but looking at it from a different angle :D
 
then how can the two waveforms be placed in phase by any action other than by moving one of the waves by some amount of time?
...
also, for this discussion the X-axis is always time and the Y-axis is Magnitude. we are dealing with signals in the time domain.
That is exactly what mathematical functions do. X - whether it represents time or space or apples or oranges or anything else - is just the numerical value that gets plugged into the equation in question, and y is is the value that comes out the other end of the equation. In the case of a sine wave, the equation is y=sin(x).

When one changes the phase of a wave, it's changing the actual y result for the value x input into it, and it does so by mathematically mimicing ( don't take this literally) the rotation of angle around a circle on the z (yes z) axis circling around the x axis. There is nothing that says that this rotation needs to take any specific amount of time. It is simply the execution of a mathematical function that changes the value of y based upon the rotation around z.

phase_rotation.jpg


also, what is a phase value?
I was referring to the amount, in degrees, of phase angle change from the original.
no, the Blue Sine Wave is shifted in time. A sine wave cannot start with a discontinuity.
If the blue one were shifted in time, then it would be starting at y=0 but starting further down the timeline. Like the second revision in the graph that I made.
a sine wave does not have phase. a sine wave has magnitude and frequency. phase is a term that describes the relative time relationship of two waves. moving the Blue wave in time changes the phase relationship by some number of radians.
Absolutely correct. This has never been an argument between us, at least not as far as I'm concerned. What I can't do a very good job of explaining, it seems, are two points above and beyond that:

1) while time can indeed cause what resembles a phase shift, it is not *required* to cause it. The rotation of the relative phase in radians can be calculated and applied on the spot without having to shift the wave. This is what we're seeing in that original graph.

2) That when you have a waveform that is not a simple sine wave of set frequency, but rather a complex waveform consisting of multiple simultaneous frequencies (like in real life from a drum or a guitar), one cannot shift the phase of that complex wave by a set number of degrees by simply sliding it down a timeline because the amount of phase shift is going to be different for every frequency. One *can*, however, do that quite successfully in place, independent of time, by calculating the phase value change to x without moving x. And a way of picturing this is to imagine the phase angle rotation on the z axis.
bingo... the two waves are no longer in phase
They are no longer lined up in time, but they remain of the same phase. See the next quote...
there is no such thing as a phase change of a sine wave. a sine wave can change Magnitude and Frequency. Two Sine Waves have phase relationship determined by difference in Radians.
Correct until that last sentence, which is basically correct but a little fuzzy around the edges.

You're absolutely right that phase is a relationship, not an intrinsic value. "Phase angle" is the measure of the amount of change from a base value waveform to some other version of that waveform.

Again, where complex waveforms differ from pure sine waves is that when you change the phase angle of the wave form by a set number of degrees (or radians), is that the actual shape of the waveform will change. This is because the various constituent frequencies will have change their actual resulting values by differing amounts (a 90° change to a 1kHz wave is smaller in size than the same degree change to a 10Hz wave, for example). Picture the complex wave actually spinning around the x axis in the third dimension (z), and you have a kind of close (but I don't think actually precise) idea to what a time-independent phase rotation to a complex wave will look like.

But when you simply are pushing a complex wave down the timeline, you are not altering the shape of that waveform at all; i.e. you are not really changing it's phase angle from the original. The waveform remains in the same relative phase as the original.

Will they be "in phase"? No. Of course they will be "out of phase" (really a bad, misleading term there) with each other. But actual relative phase angle of each waveform remains the same, we have not actually changed it's phase at all.

G.
 
Last edited:
In the case of a sine wave, the equation is y=sin(x)

for the nth time... no.

the equation is time based f(t) = sin(wt)

where

w = radian/sec
t = sec

for the Wiki wave forms the math is

Assumptions:
- both waves have the same frequency w in Radians/sec
- both waves are continuous functions of time
- the Blue Wave is delayed by time t1

Red f(t) = sin(wt)

Blue f(t) = sin(w(t - t1))
 
Last edited:
for the nth time... no.
I'm sorry, but for the nth time, the equation for a sine wave is simply sin(x). That is the VERY DEFINITION of a sine wave.

If you wish to plot it as time, as you say, the x axis itself would represent time, and there's no need to add an extra "t" variable; we already have the time value in x. The sine function is simply the change in the value of y (amplitude) over x (time).

In this case, time would be measured against cycle frequency. For example, let's say the actual frequency of the sine were f=1Hz. The peak at 90° would be at 0.25f, it would cross down over the y=0 line (180°) at 0.5 f, and so on.

I have added the graphic I promised to my previous post. Just to save everybody from having to flip back and forth between thread pages, here it is again:
phase_rotation.jpg

This shows an original reference sine wave in blue, the same sine wave rotated 90° in phase in green, and the same blue wave rotated 180° (a.k.a. "phase inverted") in orange. There is no change in the x values; i.e. no time shift involved. They are both a simple change of the phase of the original wave.

G.
 
an example( did not read all, hope has not been spoke of) if 2 speakers are wired "out of phase", when signal is applied at same time to both speakers, one speaker cone will move out, the other speaker cone will move in.If Im not mistaken
 
an example( did not read all, hope has not been spoke of) if 2 speakers are wired "out of phase", when signal is applied at same time to both speakers, one speaker cone will move out, the other speaker cone will move in.If Im not mistaken
Yes, they will, but technically that is because the polarity has been reversed. While it appears to be the same thing and have the same effect as a phase inversion, the mechanism creating that effect is actually a flipping of polarity (y = x * -1)

-----

OK, sonixx, let's look at the math a little deeper:
the equation is time based f(t) = sin(wt)

where

w = radian/sec
t = sec
First off, the t on both sides of the equation cancel, leaving us with

f = sin(w) or "frequency equals sin*radians/sec".

This gives the frequency of the wave based on the rate that the signal is cycling through the phase space, which is an equation for determining the frequency of the sin function, not for the actual sin function itself.
for the Wiki wave forms the math is

Assumptions:
...
- the Blue Wave is delayed by time t1
Bad assumption. Both the red and blue waves are starting at t=0. If there were a time shift, the blue wave would be starting at y=0 just like the red wave, but just be shifted down the t axis by the amount t1.

And since the above equation is for the frequency of the sin, the follwing:
Red f() = sin(w)

Blue f() = sin(w(- t1))
which is a reduction of your equations with the t canceled, doesn't make sense because it is multiplying the rate of radian cycling by the amount of time shift. this would cause a change in the rate of radian cycling, which would change the frequency of the blue wave.

Now, indulge me for just a moment, please. As you say, a single wave has no intrinsic phase, but we can with complete validity assign labels to a sine of a certain condition, just to use as markers to indicate the initial state of the wave. Traditionally, the unshifted, or reference wave is assumed a label of "phase = 0°", corresponding both with the amount of phase change versus itself, as well as the name of the arbitrary starting y value in degrees of the wave cycle. In the case of each of our different diagrams, the initial wave starts at y = 0/0° and cycles through phase space positively (versus starting at 360° and cycling in the negative direction, as a polarity-flipped version would.)

We haven't even needed to talk about it's property of frequency yet; we've only just started; we've only gotten as far as defined it's start value and defining that value as the start of it's phase cycle. No more. Frequency would come next, sure, and does have import in the overall scheme of things, but let's not get ahead of ourselves just yet. So far we have a starting point both a function value and as a phase value, and an idea of which way - positive or negative, clockwise or counterclockwise - we will be cycling.

It turns out this is all we need to define a phase shift. All we have to do is change the start value for y by (just for example) 90°, or

yshifted = sin(90°) or yshifted = 1

with 1 meaning the top of the crest. (That is how amplitude of sine waves in the abstract are calculated, they have a min/max value of -1/1.)

This results in a 90 degree phase shift with no need to include time or frequency in the calculation.

To extrapolate this down the timeline, and for any amount of phase shift, it would be (i think, if I have it right)

y = sin(Θ) - (sin(Θ) - sin(x)) where Θ indicates the amount of phase change.

---

Oh, and for those who want to hear much of this stuff from someone else, and not just me, and are to lazy to push away from their internet terminal and review basic high school trig, (OK I misspoke when I said algebra earlier, this is actually basic trigonometry), try this on just for starters...

http://www.visionlearning.com/library/module_viewer.php?c3=1&mid=131&l=

G.
 
Question, I'm micing a snare, one mic on the top batter head and one mic on the bottom snare head, each mic is 3 inches from a head and 9 inches from each other. Is this the 3:1 rule?




Linear phase means Equal Delay or equal time shift for all frequencies. There is no analog equilalent and Linear Phase is only available with Digital EQs.

All analog and digital equivalent EQs cause phase shift around the cutoff frequency for that particular filter.

THIS IS NOT THE 3:1 RULE BECAUSE the source for mic 1 is the top snare head and for mic 2 is bottom snare head...
 
use common sense...

if one sound wave travels 1 and then another 1.5 inches its gonna take however fast sound travels in 1/2 inch to get there.

Its gonna phase

To cancel it you impliment 3:1

I don't claim to be able to hear a phase that close to zero, but I'm sure people can

I dont care, do it however you, want let it phase, I dont fuckin care anymore
 
OK, sonixx, let's look at the math a little deeper:First off, the t on both sides of the equation cancel, leaving us with

f = sin(w) or "frequency equals sin*radians/sec".

my apologies... I have assumed you are familiar with function terminology. I see that you are not.

f(t) implies Function of t or time.

f(t) = sin(wt) is a way to write sin as a function of time.
 
Last edited:
my apologies... I have assumed you are familiar with function terminology. I see that you are not.
Don't be a smart ass. There is no difference between the syntax of a function and that of a standard mathematical equation, (especially when typed in Arial font with no subscripts or point size changes ;).) Unless you identify in your givens f of x - or in this case f of t - as IDing a function, one can easily assume that you meant variable f multiplied by t.

OK, so the two t's do not cancel out. that's the only difference in the analysis. It still doesn't change what actually happening in it; it is still a function targeting the frequency of the sine wave, not the sine function itself. And it remains equally true that - assuming you labeled "w" correctly - that multiplying the term w affects the frequency of the sine, not the position or the phase.

I have yet to hear you respond to any of the other points made all along, including the various demonstrations of time independent phase shifts, both graphically and numerically, as well as the challenge of taking that complex wave I supplied and demonstrating how one could phase invert it or change it's relative phase by a described degree through a simple timeline shift. I'm still waiting.

The fact is, you haven't responded to those because there is no good response. There is no way to affect phase via a simple time shift and no way to coherently affect relative phase between two complex waves by a simple time shift, and it is entirely possible to affect a phase change to a wave independent of time simply by adding the phase offset to the sine function.

Or, put simply, as I have stated from page one without variance; shifting an audio wave down the time line denotes a delay, not a phase change, and will not serve to lock the phase between two waveforms captured at two different distances from the source. Furthermore, no time shift is even required to affect a phase change; phase changes can happen instantaneously - i.e. in place in the timeline - with no shifting required.

G.
 
OK, here's a set of 4 problems regarding phase, phase shift and timelines. I challenge anyone to show us how to solve them using the method of shifting the wave up or down the timeline.

PROBLEM #1
phase_prob_1.jpg

This is a re-offering of the original challenge I put up that got conveniently buried a couple of pages ago. Take this graph, make a copy of it and slide the copy up or down until there is a 180° phase shift. Post the resulting two waves (the original with the phase shifted one underneath it) to this thread for your answer. Bonus: Do it again, choosing any degree of phase shift you wish (90°, 222°, whatever), and labeling the amount of phase shift as that number. This is for those that may not like 180° for some reason, or think that selecting that number is some kind of trick.

PROBLEM #2
phase_prob_2.jpg

These two waveforms show the original waveform on top (a.), and a phase inverted (180° phase change) version on the bottom (b.) (not accomplished by a polarity inversion, though the results would in this case look the same). In which direction has the waveform been slid up or down the timeline?

PROBLEM #3
phase_prob_3.jpg

How far up or down the timeline would one have to move a copy of the waveform in order to achieve a phase shift of 180° from the original? (Or 90° or 270° or whatever other amount of phase shift you wish to calculate for.)

Problem #4
phase_prob_4.jpg

The top waveform is the original. The bottom is a copy that has been shifted down the timeline. What is the degree of phase shift caused by that shift in time?

G.
 
Back
Top