I know it's physics... that's why I don't see how the amp shouldn't have to work harder. First of all, by definition, if the power is the same, the amps must be working just as hard (work = power * time). So the answer should be obvious right off the back. But if you want the numbers:
In the one speaker system, your amp will provide power as:
P=I1*V1 or P=I1*I1*R.
So if you put two identical speakers in parallel, if you want the exact same power, you get:
P=I2*V2 or P=I2*I2*(R/2)
so I2*I2*(R/2) = I1*I1*R, or I2=root(2)*I1.
Sub the values in for the 2 speaker system and you get:
P = (root2*I1) * (root2*I1) * (R/2)
= I1 *I1 * R
which looks exactly the same as the 1 speaker system. Kind of makes sense because we're saying that we want the same power output, so by definition they have to do the same amount of work (Work=P*time).
There are differences in how loud and clear the different combinations will sound (because of dispersion of sound, how much air it is moving etc. etc), as well as possible clipping effects etc. because of the op-amps crapping out.
But to me, it looks like the amps work exactly the same amount. I'm open to being corrected, 'cause I don't know much about guitar amps. And you seem to indicate you understand this stuff, so maybe you can explain why one will work harder than the other.