Pink Floyd Gilmour "Comfortably Numb" guitar cover

famous beagle

Well-known member
Hey y'all,

This is from a book I've written called Pink Floyd Guitar Signature Licks for Hal Leonard. The book features sound-alike recordings of all 12 songs, and this is a really rough mix (still has a click, there's no fade, etc.) of the outro solo to "Comfortably Numb." I think it turned out pretty well, and it was a blast to play. :)

Comments welcome; thanks for listening!
 

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  • Comfortably Numb - Rough outro solo.mp3
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This is sweet, Beagle. Ever finish the entire thing?

Thanks! Well, the book is done if that's what the mean.

Amazon.com: Pink Floyd - Guitar Signature Licks: A Step-by-Step Breakdown of David Gilmour's Guitar Styles and Techniques (9781476821245): Chad Johnson, Pink Floyd: Books

We didn't record the entire songs front to back. It was only the most important sections with regards to guitar: guitar solos, notable riffs or rhythm parts, etc. So, most of the songs are there, but not every second.
 
Thanks! Well, the book is done if that's what the mean.

Amazon.com: Pink Floyd - Guitar Signature Licks: A Step-by-Step Breakdown of David Gilmour's Guitar Styles and Techniques (9781476821245): Chad Johnson, Pink Floyd: Books

We didn't record the entire songs front to back. It was only the most important sections with regards to guitar: guitar solos, notable riffs or rhythm parts, etc. So, most of the songs are there, but not every second.

I meant the song, but that is also great you're writing books. Unfortunately I have no idea how to read music and even have little patience for tab, but hey, we got to bump and old thread and get your book some publicity.

I think we were talking about Pink Floyd/theory in another thread, which is why this one got recommended to me. You mentioned Brain Damage being in D with the G7 being a secondary dominant/non resolving type, but isn't that an oxymoron? i.e. to be a secondary 'dominant' you need a V-I? G7-D would be a IV7-I, right? So how is that considered a non-resolving secondary dominant?

I feel like they just wanted to setup the chorus (which introduces the C chord) by getting our ear used to a note from that key -- by playing the G7 with the F note we're yearning for C, and we get it later in the song during the chorus. No? I also feel the D to G7 in Brain Damage only works because of the pulse of that song. If you play D-G7 with almost any other rhythm/pulse it sounds bad. I'm rambling a bit, but since it looks like you wrote books on theory I'm curious to hear your thoughts on all that.
 
I've heard a lot of covers of this solo, I think you have done very well to deliver a very similar feel to the original in your playing. I suspect you've lived a little.
 
Well done on the book!
I havnt actually heard the audio, I'm on the mobile version of the site. Im sure it's good, but congrats on the book. That's a big deal!
Thumbs up!
 
I meant the song, but that is also great you're writing books. Unfortunately I have no idea how to read music and even have little patience for tab, but hey, we got to bump and old thread and get your book some publicity.

I think we were talking about Pink Floyd/theory in another thread, which is why this one got recommended to me. You mentioned Brain Damage being in D with the G7 being a secondary dominant/non resolving type, but isn't that an oxymoron? i.e. to be a secondary 'dominant' you need a V-I? G7-D would be a IV7-I, right? So how is that considered a non-resolving secondary dominant?

I feel like they just wanted to setup the chorus (which introduces the C chord) by getting our ear used to a note from that key -- by playing the G7 with the F note we're yearning for C, and we get it later in the song during the chorus. No? I also feel the D to G7 in Brain Damage only works because of the pulse of that song. If you play D-G7 with almost any other rhythm/pulse it sounds bad. I'm rambling a bit, but since it looks like you wrote books on theory I'm curious to hear your thoughts on all that.

The term non-resolving is simply referring to the fact that the chord isn't behaving as expected. When we hear a dominant seventh chord, we naturally want to hear that chord resolve down a 5th or up a 4th--same thing. (The blues are one exception to this.) So, as you said, when we hear G7, we want to hear a C chord. Since G7 is the dominant of C---not D---it's called a secondary dominant, because it's briefly tonicizing another note. But since it doesn't resolve to C in the verse, it's known as a non-resolving secondary dominant.

It's kind of like when the V chord of a key is followed by the vi chord, it's called a deceptive resolution. It doesn't change the fact that it's a dominant chord; it's just an analysis after the fact.

So ... the first time we hear G7 in a song that's in the key of D, it could be called a secondary dominant. But if it doesn't resolve down a 5th, it then becomes a non-resolving secondary dominant.

You could also just call it a IV7, as you mentioned, which is more of a common chart-writing style. But in classical analysis, it would be called "V/bVII" (read "five of flat seven")---in other words, "the dominant chord of the key of C." Both analyses would mean the same thing.

Analysis is always an "after-the-fact" thing. I doubt Floyd were thinking of G7 as a secondary dominant, much less a non-resolving one, when they wrote the song, but that's technically the correct theory analysis.

---------- Update ----------

I've heard a lot of covers of this solo, I think you have done very well to deliver a very similar feel to the original in your playing. I suspect you've lived a little.

Thanks very much!

---------- Update ----------

Well done on the book!
I havnt actually heard the audio, I'm on the mobile version of the site. Im sure it's good, but congrats on the book. That's a big deal!
Thumbs up!

Thanks a lot. I appreciate it. :)
 
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